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#1
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You're not making any sense. You say you would have put someone on a full house, so you would have folded what you thought were overcards and a flush draw. Then you realize he actually had the flush already, so then you say you would have called against what you thought was a full house??? Ummm.... a full house still beats a flush, dude. If you (incorrectly) put your opponent on a full house, why on earth would you call with just a flush?
You're making my head spin here. |
#2
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![]() sorry its late, I didnt really look how much was in pot compared to the all in bet. Most likley if I already had the flush I would probolly have pot odds to call the all in bet. If I didnt have the flush yet I dont think I would of had pot odds to make that call but with the flush already I think I would have it because I would be ahead more then behind. Does that make sense? |
#3
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You can justify laying the hand down to a flop bet, but I believe the implied odds make this an acceptable call even though the pot odds arent there.
On the turn you absolutely call. Brian, you'd fold an Ace high flush because of a paired board of 3s? If you were still drawing yes, a fold is correct. But I have one question -- What set did you put him on, on a 2,3,6 flop with his preflop RERAISE? Last edited by Zybomb; 09-06-05 at 04:57 AM. |
#5
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![]() Yea I read the board wrong and made a mess of this thread, sorry about that. I agreed afterwards that the call on the turn was correct. Very slim chance of a full house but at this level it is very possible with the preflop raise but im calling here 95% of the time also. |
#7
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![]() didnt I just say I read the board wrong like 10 times? If you have the flush I call if you are still chasing it on turn I fold. |
#8
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LOL fold the ACE high flush because the board pairs? LOLOL!!!!
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#9
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I think you played it just fine, however you might have fucked up on the river if.......................you didn't add dickbag 3-5 to your buddy list for future reference.
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That's how I rolled. |
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