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#1
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Where is your sense of drama? Starting hands should be KK vs A3.
Maybe this is wrong, but the only thing worst would be KK vs AA, flop coming KK2 and then turn and river of AA, and then it would be a tie with TP's sob story. The point is can a person be farther behind on the flop to come back to win? Pretty much any situation in which you are chasing a two outer on the flop and then a one outer on the turn. |
#2
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Right.... you can't be farther behind that needing two exact cards to come in order to win the hand.
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#3
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You have 8h 9h
Opp has Kh Ah Flop comes 7h 10h Jh What if something sick like that happens? How do the odds compare in this situation to a perfect-perfect situation? |
#4
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Don't take this wrong, but I honestly don't see how this is so hard for people to understand. In this example, the guy would need to get exactly the Qh to win the hand. So, with 45 unknown cards left after the flop, his odds are 44:1 against and they will be 43:1 on the river. His total odds are 22.5:1. This is called a one outer, which is a whole lot easier to hit than perfect perfect.
Now, had your example been this: You have 8h 9h Opp has Kh Ah Flop comes 6h 7h 10h Here, your opponent needs to get exactly the Jh AND exactly the Qh in order to win the hand - the order they come doesn't matter. So, that's perfect perfect, meaning the odds would be exactly the same as the hand I posted. It doesn't matter if the person needs the two remaining Aces or the exact two suited cards or the two remaining 4s for that matter (33 vs 44 after a 332 flop). Exact two cards = exact two cards, no matter what two cards they are. The probability of getting exactly a Qh is the same as getting exactly a 4d, for example. The only real difference here is that at least this guy has a reason to be in the hand, with an Ace high flush and all. He should at least THINK he has a good hand. |
#5
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No, I understand that perfect-perfect is much harder...I was just wondering what the comparison was...
I'm not trying to argue the impossiblity of the situation. |
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