Question
 

I have a poker quesiton taht i dont know if it could go both ways or there is a real rule...but here goes...one night we were having a tournament at my house and i was the dealer and the blinds had been called by 2 ppl so it got back around to the big blind he then checks so there are three ppl in the hand then the flop comes...so the person first to the left checks and it checks to the last player with the option to bet...he does so and then it goes back around and everyone calls...heres the question...does that person have a option to RERAISE after everyone has called?

Thanks Colin

hell no

Umm... WHAT?:confused:

Let me recap here, because Im not sure if I understand

Two players called the BB, the SB folded, the BB checks.

BB checks, limper 1 checks and limper 2 bets

BB calls, limper 1 calls

and you're asking if the original bettor (limper 2) can raise his own bet?

Either Im understanding the question wrong or This can't be a serious question... and the bold... uh..... :confused: :confused: :confused:

and he absolutely can not RERAISE, because no one has raised. If someone has raised he absolutely can reraise

I definitely don't mean to be a jerk, but you can google poker rules and answer basic questions like this that you would never want to ask as a serious question in a poker forum. If for no other reason than to not be attacked as an idiot. Especially when your question is BASIC.

You cant raise your your first bet unless you were raised.If raised after your original bet then you have the option to reraise.

Umm, GO but a set of chips, doesnt matter, they all come with a basic rules packet, this should be the type of info that u find in there......Wow, raise ur own raise.......ide love to do that.../=

This is either a joke or... I don't know what. I guess someone who has never played poker before.